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CompTIA CAS-005 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic
Details

Topic 1

• Governance, Risk, and Compliance: This section of the exam measures the skills of CompTIA security architects that cover the implementation of governance components based on organizational security requirements, including developing policies, procedures, and standards. Candidates will learn about managing security programs, including awareness training on phishing and social engineering.

Topic 2

• Security Engineering: This section measures the skills of CompTIA security architects that involve troubleshooting common issues related to identity and access management (IAM) components within an enterprise environment. Candidates will analyze requirements to enhance endpoint and server security while implementing hardware security technologies. This domain also emphasizes the importance of advanced cryptographic concepts in securing systems.

Topic 3

• Security Architecture: This domain focuses on analyzing requirements to design resilient systems, including the configuration of firewalls and intrusion detection systems.

Topic 4

• Security Operations: This domain is designed for CompTIA security architects and covers analyzing data to support monitoring and response activities, as well as assessing vulnerabilities and recommending solutions to reduce attack surfaces. Candidates will apply threat-hunting techniques and utilize threat intelligence concepts to enhance operational security.

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CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q61-Q66):

NEW QUESTION # 61
A user reports application access issues to the help desk. The help desk reviews the logs for the user

Which of the following is most likely The reason for the issue?

• A. The user inadvertently tripped the impossible travel security rule in the SSO system.
• B. The user did not attempt to connect from an approved subnet
• C. The user is not allowed to access the human resources system outside of business hours
• D. A threat actor has compromised the user's account and attempted to lop, m

Answer: A

Explanation:
Based on the provided logs, the user has accessed various applications from different geographic locations within a very short timeframe. This pattern is indicative of the "impossible travel" security rule, a common feature in Single Sign-On (SSO) systems designed to detect and prevent fraudulent access attempts.
Analysis of Logs:
* At 8:47 p.m., the user accessed a VPN from Toronto.
* At 8:48 p.m., the user accessed email from Los Angeles.
* At 8:48 p.m., the user accessed the human resources system from Los Angeles.
* At 8:49 p.m., the user accessed email again from Los Angeles.
* At 8:52 p.m., the user attempted to access the human resources system from Toronto, which was denied.
These rapid changes in location are physically impossible and typically trigger security measures to prevent unauthorized access. The SSO system detected these inconsistencies and likely flagged the activity as suspicious, resulting in access denial.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* NIST Special Publication 800-63B, "Digital Identity Guidelines"
* "Impossible Travel Detection," Microsoft Documentation

NEW QUESTION # 62
A security analyst is using data provided from a recent penetration test to calculate CVSS scores to prioritize remediation. Which of the following metric groups would the analyst need to determine to get the overall scores? (Select three).

• A. Availability
• B. Base
• C. Temporal
• D. Environmental
• E. Integrity
• F. Confidentiality
• G. Attack vector
• H. Impact

Answer: B,C,D

Explanation:
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) v3.1 uses three metric groups to calculate overall scores: Base, Temporal, and Environmental.
Base (E): Mandatory metrics assessing exploitability (e.g., attack vector) and impact (confidentiality, integrity, availability).
Temporal (A): Optional metrics reflecting the current state of the vulnerability (e.g., exploit availability, remediation level).
Environmental (F): Optional metrics tailoring the score to the organization's context (e.g., security requirements).
B, C, D (Availability, Integrity, Confidentiality): These are subcomponents of the Base Impact metrics, not standalone groups.
G (Impact): A category within Base, not a group.
H (Attack vector): A single Base metric, not a group.

NEW QUESTION # 63
A company plans to implement a research facility with Intellectual property data that should be protected The following is the security diagram proposed by the security architect

Which of the following security architect models is illustrated by the diagram?

• A. Zero Trust security model
• B. Agent based security model
• C. Perimeter protection security model
• D. Identity and access management model

Answer: A

Explanation:
The security diagram proposed by the security architect depicts a Zero Trust security model. Zero Trust is a security framework that assumes all entities, both inside and outside the network, cannot be trusted and must be verified before gaining access to resources.
Key Characteristics of Zero Trust in the Diagram:
* Role-based Access Control: Ensures that users have access only to the resources necessary for their role.
* Mandatory Access Control: Additional layer of security requiring authentication for access to sensitive areas.
* Network Access Control: Ensures that devices meet security standards before accessing the network.
* Multi-factor Authentication (MFA): Enhances security by requiring multiple forms of verification.
This model aligns with the Zero Trust principles of never trusting and always verifying access requests, regardless of their origin.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* NIST Special Publication 800-207, "Zero Trust Architecture"
* "Implementing a Zero Trust Architecture," Forrester Research

NEW QUESTION # 64
An analyst reviews a SIEM and generates the following report:

OnlyHOST002is authorized for internet traffic. Which of the following statements is accurate?

• A. The VM002 host is misconfigured and needs to be revised by the network team.
• B. The HOST002 host is under attack, and a security incident should be declared.
• C. The network connection activity is unusual, and a network infection is highly possible.
• D. The SIEM platform is reporting multiple false positives on the alerts.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed
Understanding the Security Event:
HOST002 is the only device authorized for internet traffic. However, theSIEM logs show that VM002 is making network connections to web.corp.local.
This indicatesunauthorized access, which could bea sign of lateral movement or network infection.
This is ared flagfor potential malware, unauthorized software, or a compromised host.
Why Option D is Correct:
Unusual network traffic patternsare often an indicator of acompromised system.
VM002 should not be communicating externally, but it is.
This suggests a possiblebreach or malware infectionattempting to communicate with a command-and-control (C2) server.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
A (Misconfiguration):While a misconfiguration could explain the unauthorized connections, the pattern of activity suggests something more malicious.
B (Security incident on HOST002):The issue is not with HOST002. The suspicious activity isfrom VM002.
C (False positives):The repeated pattern of unauthorized connections makes false positivesunlikely.
Reference:
CompTIASecurityX CAS-005 Official Study Guide:Chapter on SIEM & Incident Analysis MITRE ATT&CK Tactics:Lateral Movement & Network-based Attacks NIST 800-94:Guidelines for Network Intrusion Detection and Analysis

NEW QUESTION # 65
A company lined an email service provider called my-email.com to deliver company emails. The company stalled having several issues during the migration. A security engineer is troubleshooting and observes the following configuration snippet:

Which of the following should the security engineer modify to fix the issue? (Select two).

• A. The srvo1 A record must be changed to a type CNAME record pointing to the email server
• B. The srv01 A record must be changed to a type CNAME record pointing to the web01 server
• C. The TXT record must be Changed to "v=dkim ip4:192.168.1.10 include:email-all"
• D. The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to 192.168.111
• E. The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to 192.168.1.10
• F. The TXT record must be changed to "v=dkim ip4:l92.168.1.11 include my-email.com -ell"
• G. The TXT record must be Changed to "v=dmarc ip4:192.168.1.10 include:my-email.com -all"

Answer: E,G

Explanation:
The security engineer should modify the following to fix the email migration issues:
Email CNAME Record: The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to
192.168.1.10. This is because CNAME records should not be used where an IP address (A record) is required.
Changing it to an A record ensures direct pointing to the correct IP.
TXT Record for DMARC: The TXT record must be changed to "v=dmarc ip4:192.168.1.10 include com -all". This ensures proper configuration of DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting
& Conformance) to include the correct IP address and the email service provider domain.
DMARC: Ensuring the DMARC record is correctly set up helps in preventing email spoofing and phishing, aligning with email security best practices.

NEW QUESTION # 66
......

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