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Medical Council of Canada - Fantastic MCCQE Valid Test Prep
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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q80-Q85):
NEW QUESTION # 80
A 30-year-old woman presents to the office with her partner and reports that they are planning for her to conceive soon. They visited Mexico recently and are concerned about exposure to the Zika virus. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Request serologic testing
- B. Refer the couple to an infectious disease specialist
- C. Prescribe a prophylactic antiviral medication
- D. Explain that condoms are ineffective in preventing sexual transmission of Zika virus
- E. Recommend ceasing conception until 3 months after the couple's return to Canada
Answer: E
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The Zika virus can be sexually transmitted and poses a serious risk of congenital Zika syndrome if infection occurs during pregnancy. The CDC and WHO recommend that couples delay conception for at least 3 months after potential male exposure due to the virus's persistence in semen.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Infectious Diseases / Travel Medicine:
"Zika virus may persist in semen for weeks. Couples should delay conception for 3 months after male exposure, even if asymptomatic." MCCQE1 Objectives (Public Health > 65-3: Travel Medicine and Reproductive Health):
"Candidates must counsel appropriately regarding risks of Zika in conception and apply current public health recommendations." Testing (B) is not reliable for asymptomatic individuals. Antivirals (E) are ineffective. Condoms (D) do reduce risk. Specialist referral (A) is not needed in most cases with no complications.
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NEW QUESTION # 81
You are following an otherwise healthy 3-month-old girl whose severe bilateral sensorineural deafness was diagnosed after early identification through a universal newborn hearing screening program. She has reached the developmental milestones for her age and has no features of an underlying syndrome. There is no family history of hearing loss. The parents request information on the speech and language prognosis for their daughter. Which one of the following is the most appropriate response?
- A. Most children with this condition learn to hear and speak fluently with appropriate early intervention.
- B. Long-term literacy is likely to be limited to a grade 4 level.
- C. Significant limitation in expressive and receptive speech should be expected.
- D. The prognosis is unpredictable and not well known.
- E. Sign language and a school for the hearing impaired will be needed.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Early identification of sensorineural hearing loss through universal newborn screening enables early intervention (e.g., cochlear implants, speech therapy), which can result in near-normal language development.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, Hearing Loss:
"Children diagnosed early with bilateral hearing loss and provided with appropriate intervention (e.g., amplification or implants) can achieve normal speech and language milestones." MCCQE1 Objectives - Pediatrics > Development & Communication Disorders:
"Candidates must understand the importance of early detection and intervention in congenital hearing loss and its impact on speech and literacy outcomes." Other options (A-C, E) are outdated or overly pessimistic. Current evidence supports favorable outcomes with early diagnosis and management.
NEW QUESTION # 82
A 2-month-old infant is brought by his parents to your clinic with concerns regarding his frequent crying spells. He has been crying for more than 3 hours daily for many weeks. The infant has reached all age-specific developmental milestones. Which one of the following is the most important to share with the parents regarding this situation?
- A. Resolution of the crying spells is expected between ages 6 and 12 months
- B. There is an increased risk for dependent personality traits in adulthood
- C. Investigations are required to confirm a diagnosis
- D. Most infants respond well to low-dose sedative medications
- E. This is a self-limited condition
Answer: E
Explanation:
This infant likely has infantile colic, defined by the "rule of 3s": crying >3 hours per day, >3 days per week, for >3 weeks, usually starting in the first few months of life. It is benign and self-limited, typically resolving by 3-4 months of age.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, "Common Concerns in Infancy":
"Colic is self-limited. No routine testing is required in healthy, thriving infants. Reassurance and support for parents are key." MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-1: Behavioral Pediatrics):
"Candidates must recognize normal variations such as colic and avoid unnecessary interventions. Counseling and reassurance are essential." Sedatives (D) are contraindicated. Investigations (C) are unnecessary without red flags. Resolution (B) usually occurs by 3-4 months, not as late as 12 months.
NEW QUESTION # 83
You are working in a busy family practice. Your colleague's 48-year-old female patient presents with a 6- month history of fatigue and gastrointestinal symptoms. A recent colonoscopy was normal. Her chart indicates multiple investigations for similar symptoms over the past 2 years, all of which have been non- revealing. Your working diagnosis is somatic symptom disorder. Which one of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
- A. Risperidone 0.5 mg daily
- B. Amitriptyline 10 mg at bedtime
- C. Citalopram 20 mg daily
- D. Cognitive behavioral therapy
- E. Exposure and response prevention therapy
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is the most effective first-line treatment for somatic symptom disorder. It helps patients reframe dysfunctional thoughts and improve coping strategies for perceived physical symptoms.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders":
"CBT is first-line for somatic symptom disorder. Antidepressants may be considered if comorbid depression or anxiety is present." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-2: Somatic Symptom Disorders):
"Candidates must manage somatic symptom disorder with appropriate psychosocial interventions." Citalopram (B) or amitriptyline (E) may be used adjunctively if mood symptoms are prominent. Risperidone (C) and ERP (D) are not indicated.
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NEW QUESTION # 84
A surgical clinic would like to respond to the Truth and Reconciliation Commission of Canada: Calls to Action report. The clinic has implemented a mandatory cultural safety course for all employees and ongoing faculty development that includes teachings from Elders and Knowledge Keepers and teaching sessions about harm reduction, trauma-informed care, and antiracism. Which one of the following steps would further the clinic's goal of responding to this report?
- A. Provide clinic information in the languages spoken by the community.
- B. Display the cultural safety certificate in the waiting room.
- C. Include trauma disclosure on the clinic's intake form.
- D. Evaluate how the staff enjoyed the teaching session.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Providing information in the patient's own language is a concrete way to improve access, cultural safety, and communication - key recommendations in the Truth and Reconciliation Commission's Calls to Action. It moves beyond symbolic gestures and supports equitable care.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, "Indigenous Health and Cultural Safety" Section:
"Cultural safety includes removing language barriers, engaging with Elders, and using patient-centered practices that respect Indigenous values. Communication in the patient's first language improves trust and outcomes." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 99-2: Cultural Safety and Health Equity):
"Candidates must apply the principles of culturally safe care including removing barriers to access and effective communication, as highlighted in the Truth and Reconciliation Commission's Calls to Action." Evaluating session enjoyment (A) is not impactful. Certificates (C) are symbolic. Intake questions about trauma (D) must be done with appropriate context and safety - not as a formality.
NEW QUESTION # 85
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