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Tech firms award high-paying job contracts to CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam (CAS-005) certification holders. Every year many aspirants appear in the CAS-005 test of the certification, but few of them cannot crack it because of not finding reliable CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam prep materials. So, you must prepare with real exam questions to pass the certification exam. If you don't rely on actual exam questions, you will fail and loss time and money.

CompTIA CAS-005 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic
Details

Topic 1

Security Operations: This domain is designed for CompTIA security architects and covers analyzing data to support monitoring and response activities, as well as assessing vulnerabilities and recommending solutions to reduce attack surfaces. Candidates will apply threat-hunting techniques and utilize threat intelligence concepts to enhance operational security.

Topic 2

Governance, Risk, and Compliance: This section of the exam measures the skills of CompTIA security architects that cover the implementation of governance components based on organizational security requirements, including developing policies, procedures, and standards. Candidates will learn about managing security programs, including awareness training on phishing and social engineering.

Topic 3

Security Engineering: This section measures the skills of CompTIA security architects that involve troubleshooting common issues related to identity and access management (IAM) components within an enterprise environment. Candidates will analyze requirements to enhance endpoint and server security while implementing hardware security technologies. This domain also emphasizes the importance of advanced cryptographic concepts in securing systems.

Topic 4

Security Architecture: This domain focuses on analyzing requirements to design resilient systems, including the configuration of firewalls and intrusion detection systems.

CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q111-Q116):

NEW QUESTION # 111
An organization has been using self-managed encryption keys rather than the free keys managed by the cloud provider. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) reviews the monthly bill and realizes the self- managed keys are more costly than anticipated. Which of the following should the CISO recommend to reduce costs while maintaining a strong security posture?

A. Begin using cloud-managed keys on all new resources deployed in the cloud.
B. Extend the key rotation period to one year so that the cloud provider can use cached keys.
C. Adjust the configuration for cloud provider keys on data that is classified as public.
D. Utilize an on-premises HSM to locally manage keys.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Step by Step Explanation:
Understanding the Scenario: Theorganization is using customer-managed encryption keys in the cloud, which is more expensive than using the cloud provider's free managed keys. The CISO needs to find a way to reduce costs without significantly weakening the security posture.
Analyzing the Answer Choices:
A). Utilize an on-premises HSM to locally manage keys: While on-premises HSMs offer strong security, they introduce additional costs and complexity (procurement, maintenance, etc.). This option is unlikely to reduce costs compared to cloud-based key management.
B). Adjust the configuration for cloud provider keys on data that is classified as public: This is the most practical and cost-effective approach. Data classified as public doesn't require the same level of protection as sensitive data. Using the cloud provider's free managed keys for public data can significantly reduce costs without compromising security, as the data is intended to be publicly accessible anyway.
Reference: This aligns with the principle of applying security controls based on data classification and risk assessment, a key concept in CASP+.
C). Begin using cloud-managed keys on all new resources deployed in the cloud: While this would reduce costs, it's a broad approach that doesn't consider the sensitivity of the data. Applying cloud-managed keys to sensitive data might not be acceptable from a security standpoint.
D). Extend the key rotation period to one year so that the cloud provider can use cached keys: Extending the key rotation period weakens security. Frequent key rotation is a security best practice to limit the impact of a potential key compromise.
Reference: Key rotation is a fundamental security control, and reducing its frequency goes against CASP+ principles related to cryptography and risk management.
Why B is the Correct answer:
Risk-Based Approach: Using cloud-provider-managed keys for public data is a reasonable risk-based decision. Public data, by definition, is not confidential.
Cost Optimization: This directly addresses the CISO's concern about cost, as cloud-provider-managed keys are often free or significantly cheaper.
Security Balance: It maintains a strong security posture for sensitive data by continuing to use customer- managed keys where appropriate, while optimizing costs for less sensitive data.
CASP+ Relevance: This approach demonstrates an understanding of risk management, data classification, and cost-benefit analysis in security decision-making, all of which are important topics in CASP+.
Elaboration on Data Classification:
Data Classification Policy: Organizations should have a clear data classification policy that defines different levels of data sensitivity (e.g., public, internal, confidential, restricted).
Security Controls Based on Classification: Security controls, including encryption key management, should be applied based on the data's classification level.
Cost-Benefit Analysis: Data classification helps organizations make informed decisions about where to invest in stronger security controls and where cost optimization is acceptable.
In conclusion, adjusting the configuration to use cloud-provider-managed keys for data classified as public is the most effective way to reduce costs while maintaining a strong security posture. It's a practical, risk-based approach that aligns with data classification principles and cost-benefit considerations, all of which are important concepts covered in the CASP+ exam objectives.

NEW QUESTION # 112
SIMULATION
A security engineer needs to review the configurations of several devices on the network to meet the following requirements:
* The PostgreSQL server must only allow connectivity in the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet.
* The SSH daemon on the database server must be configured to listen
to port 4022.
* The SSH daemon must only accept connections from a Single
workstation.
* All host-based firewalls must be disabled on all workstations.
* All devices must have the latest updates from within the past eight
days.
* All HDDs must be configured to secure data at rest.
* Cleartext services are not allowed.
* All devices must be hardened when possible.
Instructions:
Click on the various workstations and network devices to review the posture assessment results. Remediate any possible issues or indicate that no issue is found.
Click on Server A to review output data. Select commands in the appropriate tab to remediate connectivity problems to the pOSTGREsql DATABASE VIA ssh

WAP A

PC A

Laptop A

Switch A

Switch B:

Laptop B

PC B

PC C

Server A

Answer:

Explanation:
See the Explanation below for the solution
Explanation:
WAP A: No issue found. The WAP A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.
PC A = Enable host-based firewall to block all traffic
This option will turn off the host-based firewall and allow all traffic to pass through. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the connectivity of PC A to other devices on the network. However, this option will also reduce the security of PC A and make it more vulnerable to attacks. Therefore, it is recommended to use other security measures, such as antivirus, encryption, and password complexity, to protect PC A from potential threats.
Laptop A: Patch management
This option will install the updates that are available for Laptop A and ensure that it has the most recent security patches and bug fixes. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the performance and stability of Laptop A. However, this option may also require a reboot of Laptop A and some downtime during the update process. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and close any open applications before applying the updates.
Switch A: No issue found. The Switch A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.
Switch B: No issue found. The Switch B is configured correctly and meets the requirements.
Laptop B: Disable unneeded services
This option will stop and disable the telnet service that is using port 23 on Laptop B. Telnet is a cleartext service that transmits data in plain text over the network, which exposes it to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. By disabling the telnet service, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of Laptop B. However, this option may also affect the functionality of Laptop B if it needs to use telnet for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to use a secure alternative to telnet, such as SSH or HTTPS, that encrypts the data in transit.
PC B: Enable disk encryption
This option will encrypt the HDD of PC B using a tool such as BitLocker or VeraCrypt. Disk encryption is a technique that protects data at rest by converting it into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a valid key or password. By enabling disk encryption, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the confidentiality and integrity of PC B's data. However, this option may also affect the performance and usability of PC B, as it requires additional processing time and user authentication to access the encrypted data. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and choose a strong key or password before encrypting the disk.
PC C: Disable unneeded services
This option will stop and disable the SSH daemon that is using port 22 on PC C. SSH is a secure service that allows remote access and command execution over an encrypted channel. However, port 22 is the default and well-known port for SSH, which makes it a common target for brute-force attacks and port scanning. By disabling the SSH daemon on port 22, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of PC C. However, this option may also affect the functionality of PC C if it needs to use SSH for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to enable the SSH daemon on a different port, such as 4022, by editing the configuration file using the following command:
sudo nano /etc/ssh/sshd_config
Server A. Need to select the following:

NEW QUESTION # 113
A company migrated a critical workload from its data center to the cloud. The workload uses a very large data set that requires computational-intensive data processing. The business unit that uses the workload is projecting the following growth pattern:
* Storage requirements will double every six months.
* Computational requirements will fluctuate throughout the year.
* Average computational requirements will double every year.
Which of the following should the company do to address the business unit's requirements?

A. Implement a load balancer for computing and storage resources.
B. Deploy a cloud-based CDN for storage and a load balancer for compute.
C. Plan for a horizontally scaling computing and storage infrastructure.
D. Combine compute and storage in vertically autoscaling mode.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed
SecurityX CAS-005 cloud architecture guidance emphasizes horizontal scaling for workloads that need to handle both predictable and fluctuating growth over time. Horizontal scaling allows the infrastructure to add nodes for both compute and storage dynamically, providing elasticity to meet fluctuating computational demands while accommodating exponential storage growth.
Vertical scaling (B) has hardware limits and is not as flexible for large, sustained growth.
CDN (A) is optimized for content distribution, not intensive compute workloads.

NEW QUESTION # 114
A company implemented a NIDS and a NIPS on the most critical environments. Since this implementation, the company has been experiencing network connectivity issues. Which of the following should the security architect recommend for a new NIDS/NIPS implementation?

A. Implementing the NIDS in the bastion host and the NIPS in the branch network router
B. Implementing the NIDS and the NIPS together with the main firewall
C. Implementing the NIDS with a port mirror in the core switch and the NIPS in the main firewall
D. Implementing a NIDS without a NIPS to increase the detection capability

Answer: C

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed
Best practice in CAS-005 network security design is to deploy:
NIDS passively via a port mirror (SPAN port) to avoid introducing latency or failure points.

NEW QUESTION # 115
A company needs to quickly assess whether software deployed across the company's global corporate network contains specific software libraries. Which of the following best enables the company's SOC to respond quickly when such an assessment is required?

A. Maintaining SAST/DAST reports on a server with access restricted to SOC staff
B. Implementing a GRC tool to maintain a list of all software vendors and internal developers
C. Requiring all suppliers and internal developers to implement a thorough SBoM
D. Contractually requiring all software vendors to attest to third-party risk mitigations

Answer: C

Explanation:
The best way for a SOC to rapidly identify whether deployed applications contain specific libraries is through the use of a Software Bill of Materials (SBOM). An SBOM is a formal, machine-readable inventory of all components, including third-party and open-source libraries, used in a software product. When a new vulnerability is disclosed (such as Log4Shell in Log4j), organizations with a comprehensive SBOM can immediately search across their application landscape to determine which systems are impacted.
Other options are less effective. Maintaining SAST/DAST reports (A) only provides snapshots of vulnerabilities at the time of scanning, but does not dynamically track components across all software in production. Vendor attestations (B) improve supply chain governance but do not provide immediate visibility into internal or custom software. A GRC tool (D) helps track vendors and policies but does not show technical dependencies inside applications.
Requiring suppliers and internal developers to provide and maintain SBOMs ensures continuous visibility into dependencies. This allows the SOC to quickly query and respond to emerging vulnerabilities, reducing risk exposure and accelerating remediation timelines.

NEW QUESTION # 116
......

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