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EXIN CITM Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic
Details

Topic 1

Risk Management: This domain evaluates the capabilities of an IT Risk Manager and involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating IT-related risks. It addresses developing risk frameworks, compliance management, and proactive measures to safeguard IT assets and operations.

Topic 2

Information Security Management: This section targets an Information Security Manager and focuses on protecting information assets from threats. It covers policy development, security controls implementation, incident response, data protection, and compliance with legal and regulatory requirements to maintain confidentiality, integrity, and availability.

Topic 3

Service Management: This domain targets a Service Delivery Manager and focuses on managing IT services to ensure consistent and efficient delivery. It includes establishing service level agreements (SLAs), incident and problem management, continuous service improvement, and aligning IT services with business demands.

Topic 4

Business Continuity Management: This section measures the skills of a Business Continuity Manager and covers planning and implementing strategies to ensure IT availability and resilience during disruptions. It includes risk assessment, disaster recovery planning, backup procedures, and testing to minimize business impact.

EXIN EPI Certified Information Technology Manager Sample Questions (Q43-Q48):

NEW QUESTION # 43
Vendor management meetings take place several times per year. What is the main objective for these meetings?

A. Discuss improvement programs
B. Explore improvement programs
C. Verify if the vendor continues to meet the requirements of the contract, supporting the business processes
D. Identify possible price increases

Answer: C

Explanation:
The main objective ofvendor management meetingsis toverify if the vendor continues to meet the requirements of the contract, supporting the business processes(C). These meetings, as part ofvendor management frameworks, ensure that the vendor's performance aligns with contractual obligations, service level agreements (SLAs), and business needs. They involve reviewing service delivery, compliance, and any issues affecting business processes.
* Explore improvement programs (A):A secondary goal, as improvements may arise from performance reviews.
* Identify possible price increases (B):Price discussions may occur, but they are not the primary focus.
* Discuss improvement programs (D):Similar to A, this is a potential outcome but not the main objective.
Reference:EPI CITM study guide, under Vendor Selection/Management, likely covers vendor performance monitoring and contract compliance. Check sections on vendor management or SLA monitoring.

NEW QUESTION # 44
One particular incident repeatedly occurs every first day of the working week. As part of problem management, it is decided to gather a group of technical specialists to conduct problem analysis. Which technique is recommended?

A. 5-Whys
B. Kepner-Tregoe
C. Fault isolation
D. Technical observation post

Answer: A

Explanation:
For a recurring incident,problem managementinITILaims to identify the root cause to prevent future occurrences. The5-Whystechnique (C) is recommended as it involves repeatedly asking "why" to drill down to the root cause of the issue. This simple, effective method is suitable for a group of technical specialists analyzing a recurring problem, such as an incident occurring every Monday, which may stem from a specific process, configuration, or system issue.
* Kepner-Tregoe (A):A structured decision-making and problem-solving method, more complex and less focused on root cause analysis alone.
* Technical observation post (B):Not a standard problem management technique; likely a distractor.
* Fault isolation (D):Focuses on isolating faulty components, more applicable to hardware issues than recurring process-related incidents.
The 5-Whys technique is widely used in ITIL problem management for its simplicity and effectiveness in collaborative root cause analysis.
Reference:EPI CITM study guide, under Service Management, likely references ITIL's problem management techniques, including 5-Whys. Check sections on problem analysis or root cause analysis.

NEW QUESTION # 45
The project brief/project charter is created. Which of the following is not part of it?

A. Quality expectations
B. Detailed planning
C. Summary budget
D. High-level risk

Answer: B

Explanation:
Theproject charter(or project brief) is a high-level document created during theinitiation phaseof a project, as defined byPMBOK(Project Management Body of Knowledge). It outlines the project's purpose, objectives, scope, and key elements but does not includedetailed planning(A), which occurs during the planning phase after the charter is approved. The charter typically includes:
* High-level risks (B):Identifies major risks to provide early awareness.
* Summary budget (C):Provides an initial cost estimate for approval.
* Quality expectations (D):Defines high-level quality requirements or standards.
Detailed planning, such as creating a detailed Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) or schedule, is part of the project management plan developed later, not the charter.
Reference:EPI CITM study guide, under Project Management, likely references PMBOK's project initiation processes, detailing the components of a project charter. Refer to sections on project initiation or project charter development.

NEW QUESTION # 46
From the list below, which activity is not considered to be an activity in the software development phase?

A. Code writing
B. Documenting
C. Testing
D. Implementation

Answer: D

Explanation:
In theSoftware Development Life Cycle (SDLC), thedevelopment phasetypically includescode writing(A), testing(B), anddocumenting(C) to build and verify the software.Implementation(D) is part of the deployment phase, where the software is installed and made operational in the production environment, not part of development.
Reference:EPI CITM study guide, under Application Management, likely covers SDLC phases, distinguishing development from implementation. Refer to sections on software development or application lifecycle management.

NEW QUESTION # 47
The new social media platform is multi-media supported and will generate a large volume of raw data. The marketing department has a need for advanced analysis of this data. Which data management technology applies best?

A. Online Analytical Processing (OLAP)
B. Big Data Analysis
C. Master Data Management (MDM)
D. Digital Asset Management (DAM)

Answer: B

Explanation:
The scenario describes a social media platform generating alarge volume of raw data(e.g., user interactions, multimedia content) and a need foradvanced analysisby the marketing department.Big Data Analysis(D) is the best technology, as it handles large, unstructured datasets and uses advanced techniques (e.g., machine learning, predictive analytics) to derive insights, such as user behavior or campaign effectiveness.
* Master Data Management (MDM) (A):Focuses on managing core business data (e.g., customer records) for consistency, not analyzing large raw datasets.
* Digital Asset Management (DAM) (B):Manages multimedia assets (e.g., images, videos) for storage and retrieval, not advanced analysis.
* Online Analytical Processing (OLAP) (C):Supports multidimensional analysis of structured data but is less suited for unstructured, large-scale social media data compared to big data tools.
Big Data Analysis aligns withIT strategyfor leveraging large datasets to drive business value, as per modern data management frameworks.
Reference:EPI CITM study guide, under IT Strategy, likely discusses data management technologies, emphasizing big data for advanced analytics. Refer to sections on data analytics or emerging technologies.

NEW QUESTION # 48
......

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