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PRMIA 8011 Exam covers a range of topics related to credit and counterparty risk management, including credit risk measurement and management, counterparty risk management, credit derivatives, securitization, and credit portfolio management. 8011 exam is designed to test the candidate's understanding of the key concepts, principles, and practices of credit and counterparty risk management. The CCRM certificate is recognized globally and is highly valued by employers in the financial services industry. It is an excellent way for professionals to demonstrate their expertise and commitment to the field of credit and counterparty risk management.
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PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam Sample Questions (Q310-Q315):
NEW QUESTION # 310
Which of the following statements is true in relation to a normal mixture distribution:
I. Normal mixtures represent one possible solution to the problem of volatility clustering II. A normal mixture VaR will always be greater than that under the assumption of normally distributed returns III. Normal mixtures can be applied to situations where a number of different market scenarios with different probabilities can be expected
- A. II and III
- B. I, II and III
- C. III
- D. I and II
Answer: C
Explanation:
Normal mixtures address fat or heavy tails, not volatility clustering. Therefore statement I is not correct.
Statement II is not correct. Where VaR is calculated at low levels of confidence, VaR based on normal mixtures may be lower than that under a normal assumption. This is no different than for other fat tailed distributions.
Statement III is correct. In situations where multiple market scenarios can unfold with a given probability, and each scenario is normal, we can express the result with a normal mixture where the underlying normal distributions have the probabilities of the different scenarios.
NEW QUESTION # 311
For identical mean and variance, which of the following distribution assumptions will provide a higher estimate of VaR at a high level of confidence?
- A. A distribution with kurtosis = 8
- B. A distribution with kurtosis = 0
- C. A distribution with kurtosis = 3
- D. A distribution with kurtosis = 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
A fat tailed distribution has more weight in the tails, and therefore at a high level of confidence the VaR estimate will be higher for a distribution with heavier tails. At relatively lower levels of confidence however, the situation is reversed as the heavier tailed distribution will have a VaR estimate lower than a thinner tailed distribution.
A higher level of kurtosis implies a 'peaked' distribution with fatter tails. Among the given choices, a distribution with kurtosis equal to 8 will have the heaviest tails, and therefore a higher VaRestimate. Choice 'a' is therefore the correct answer. Also refer to the tutorial about VaR and fat tails.
NEW QUESTION # 312
For a corporate bond, which of the following statements is true:
I. The credit spread is equal to the default rate times the recovery rate II. The spread widens when the ratings of the corporate experience an upgrade III. Both recovery rates and probabilities of default are related to the business cycle and move in opposite directions to each other IV. Corporate bond spreads are affected by both the risk of default and the liquidity of the particular issue
- A. IV only
- B. I, II and IV
- C. III and IV
- D. III only
Answer: C
Explanation:
The credit spread is equal to the default rate times the loss given default, or stated another way, default rate times (1 - recovery rate). It is not equal to the default rate times the recovery rate. Therefore statement I is not correct.
When ratings are upgraded by rating agencies, the spread contracts and not widen. Therefore statement II is not correct.
Both recovery rates and probabilities of default are related to the business cycle, and they move in opposite directions. Economic recessions witness an increase in the default rate and a decrease in the recovery rate, and economic expansions result in a decrease in the default rate and an increase in the recovery rates when default does happen. Therefore statement III is correct.
Bond spreads incorporate both the risk of default, but also considerations of liquidity in the case of corporate bonds. Hence statement IV is correct.
NEW QUESTION # 313
If EV be the expected value of a firm's assets in a year, and DP be the 'default point' per the KMV approach to credit risk, and#be the standard deviation of future asset returns, then the distance-to-default is given by:
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The distance to default is the number of standard deviations that expected asset values are away from the default point. The expression in Choice 'd' represents distance to default. Choice 'd' is the correct answer. The other choices are incorrect.
NEW QUESTION # 314
As the persistence parameter under GARCH is lowered, which of the following would be true:
- A. The model will react faster to market shocks
- B. The model will react slower to market shocks
- C. High variance from the recent past will persist for longer
- D. The model will give lower weight to recent returns
Answer: A
Explanation:
The persistence parameter, #, is the coefficient of the most recent day's returns in GARCH calculations. A higher value of the persistence parameter tends to 'persist' the prior value of variance for longer. Consider an extreme example - if the persistence parameter is equal to 1, the variance under GARCH will never change in response to returns.
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NEW QUESTION # 315
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