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Peoplecert ITIL-4-Specialist-Monitor-Support-Fulfil Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic
Details

Topic 1

Incident Management: This section of the exam gauges the proficiency of incident managers and support personnel, encompassing the entire lifecycle of incident management from initial detection to final resolution.

Topic 2

Introduction to Monitor, Support, Fulfil: This section of the exam evaluates the capabilities of IT service management experts and explores the core concepts of Monitor, Support, and Fulfil value chain activities in the ITIL 4 framework.

Topic 3

Monitor and Event Management: This section of the exam assesses the competencies of IT operations managers and service desk staff, focusing on the fundamentals and applications of IT service monitoring and event handling. It examines the implementation of robust monitoring systems.

Topic 4

Service Request Management: This section of the exam appraises the abilities of IT fulfillment teams to focus on the streamlined processing of service requests. It explores creating and administering service request catalogs and tactics to enhance user satisfaction.

Topic 5

Problem Management: This section of the exam evaluates the skills of IT service managers and analysts, addressing both anticipatory and responsive facets of problem management.

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Peoplecert ITIL 4 Specialist: Monitor, Support, Fulfil Exam Sample Questions (Q83-Q88):

NEW QUESTION # 83
Which types of incidents do NOT usually require on individual review upon resolution?

A. Incidents not resolved in time
B. Major Incidents
C. Recurring incidents
D. New types of incidents

Answer: C

Explanation:
In ITIL 4, incidents are categorized based on their impact and urgency, and the way they are managed depends on their classification. Let's break down the various types of incidents mentioned in the question:
Recurring Incidents
(Answer A):
These are incidents that have been identified and occur frequently, often with well-documented resolutions (e.g., through a known error or workaround). Due to their recurring nature and the availability of established solutions, these incidents typically do not require an individual review upon resolution. Instead, they may be reviewed in bulk periodically or handled through predefined processes. According to the ITIL Service Operation practice, recurring incidents are often managed through Problem Management, where known errors or workarounds can be applied without requiring a detailed review every time. This makes recurring incidents the correct answer.
Major Incidents (Answer B):
Major incidents are high-impact, urgent incidents that require immediate attention and often involve significant resources. ITIL 4 specifies that major incidents should always undergo an individual review to assess the incident's cause, resolution time, and how the incident was handled to avoid future recurrences. This is part of the Post-Incident Review process outlined in the Incident Management practice, ensuring lessons are learned and improvements are made.
New Types of Incidents (Answer C):
New types of incidents are unfamiliar and do not have a predefined resolution or known error in place. These incidents typically require careful investigation and review upon resolution to ensure they were handled appropriately and to determine if any preventive measures need to be taken. ITIL 4 promotes continuous learning from such incidents to improve Knowledge Management and prevent future occurrences.
Incidents Not Resolved in Time (Answer D):
Incidents that are not resolved within the agreed time frame (Service Level Agreement breaches) are typically reviewed to understand why the service level was not met. Such incidents are important for Service Level Management to ensure that corrective actions are taken and similar delays do not occur in the future.
ITIL 4 Reference:
Incident Management Practice: ITIL emphasizes efficient handling of incidents to restore service operation quickly. Recurring incidents often have a known error and are resolved using documented procedures, hence not requiring detailed individual review each time.
Problem Management Practice: This deals with analyzing recurring incidents, identifying their root cause, and either resolving them permanently or establishing a workaround.
Service Level Management Practice: Incidents breaching the SLA (Answer D) are usually reviewed to improve performance and ensure compliance in future instances.

NEW QUESTION # 84
A service provider receives negative feedback from users about fulfilment of some types of service requests. Users say that the procedures are unclear, ineffective, and take too long. What is the BEST way to improve this situation?

A. Make sure that the current procedures are clearly communicated
B. Automate the fulfilment procedures
C. Review the service value stream from the user's viewpoint
D. Outsource the fulfilment procedures

Answer: C

Explanation:
When users provide feedback that procedures are unclear, ineffective, and slow, the best approach is to review the service value stream from the user's perspective. This helps identify bottlenecks, inefficiencies, and areas where the user experience can be improved. By focusing on the user's journey through the service request process, the service provider can make targeted improvements that directly address the users' concerns.
User-Centered Review: By analyzing the value stream from the user's perspective, the organization can optimize procedures to make them clearer, faster, and more effective.
Option B ("Review the service value stream from the user's viewpoint") is the best approach as it directly addresses the feedback provided by users.
Incorrect Options:
Option A: Communicating the current procedures won't help if the procedures themselves are ineffective.
Option C: Automation can help, but only after the value stream is optimized.
Option D: Outsourcing may not solve the underlying issues and could complicate the process further.

NEW QUESTION # 85
What defines how event messages will be processed and evaluated?

A. An event correlation
B. A health model
C. A monitoring action plan
D. A rule set

Answer: D

Explanation:
In ITIL 4, event management involves detecting and responding to events generated by various systems and services. The rule set defines how event messages are processed and evaluated to determine the appropriate response. These rules guide the system in correlating events and taking action based on predefined criteria.
Rule Set: This is a set of predefined conditions that determine how events should be handled, ensuring that the correct actions are taken based on the type and severity of the event.
Option B ("A rule set") is the correct answer because it directly relates to defining how event messages will be processed and evaluated.
Incorrect Options:
Option A (Event correlation): Correlates related events but does not define how they are processed.
Option C (Health model): Provides insights into system health but does not define how events are processed.
Option D (Monitoring action plan): Guides monitoring but doesn't specifically define event processing rules.

NEW QUESTION # 86
What is a benefit of a health model?

A. It provides a list of prioritized monitoring objectives
B. It suggests actions to minimize negative impact of an event
C. It allows to monitor services from the user experience perspective
D. It defines how events messages are processed and evaluated

Answer: C

Explanation:
A health model in ITIL 4 is used to monitor services and systems from a holistic perspective, often focusing on user experience. It helps assess the overall state of a service and its components by tracking performance and availability metrics. Monitoring from the user experience perspective ensures that services are not only functional from a technical standpoint but also meet the expectations of users.
Options like event processing and minimizing the impact of events (Option B) refer more to event management, while prioritized monitoring objectives (Option C) relate to monitoring objectives rather than the health model.

NEW QUESTION # 87
Which of the following is the BEST description for events?

A. Configuration item's change of state that has significance for the management of a service
B. Configuration item's change o! state that can be observed
C. Configuration item's change of state that might lead to financial losses
D. Configuration item's change of state regardless of its impact

Answer: A

Explanation:
In ITIL 4, events are defined as any detectable or discernible occurrences that have significance for the management of IT services. Not all changes in state are events, only those that matter for managing services, such as a performance threshold being reached or a server going offline.
Change of State with Significance for Service Management (Answer B - Correct): ITIL defines an event as a change of state in a configuration item (CI) that is significant for managing a service. These changes might indicate normal operation, warnings, or exceptions, and the service provider must monitor and manage them appropriately. Events allow the organization to track service performance and detect issues before they impact the service.
Change of State (Answer A - Incorrect): While this is part of the definition of an event, it lacks the critical component of significance for service management. Not every state change is an event that requires attention.
Change Leading to Financial Loss (Answer C - Incorrect): Although some events could lead to financial loss, this is a subset of events rather than a comprehensive definition.
Change Regardless of Impact (Answer D - Incorrect): Only state changes that have significance for the service need to be managed as events. This answer does not consider the importance of the event for service management.
ITIL 4 Reference:
Monitoring and Event Management Practice: Events are changes in the state of a configuration item that are significant for managing IT services, and they can be classified as informational, warnings, or exceptions.

NEW QUESTION # 88
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Dan Shaw Dan Shaw

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